Posted by fachad on June 26, 2002, at 23:12:57
In reply to Re: MORE HELP WITH TERMINOLOGY PLEASE, posted by DiscoPuppy on June 26, 2002, at 12:55:16
I'll take a try at that question.
They are very similar in action, but at different sites, and with different results.
A classical antagonist blocks the post-synaptic receptor. That blocking causes the impulse of the nerve to be stopped or dampened. The reason for that action is there is no place for the neurotransmitter to "land", so the nerve is not stimulated to fire.
A reuptake blocker blocks the pre-synaptic reuptake pump. That blocking causes the impulse to be increased. The reason for that action is that the neurotransmitter cannot go back into its storage vessel, so it keeps making the nerve fire more.
But really both antagonists and reuptake inhibitors block sites on nerve cells, so you are right, they are both similar in their actions in that regard.
> Thanks, Cam for explaining it in a way us "commoners" can understand. But what you described to me STILL sounds a lot like reuptake inhibition.
>
> So now my question becomes what is the difference between an antagonist and a reuptake inhibitor?
>
> Oh, and Medlib, I tried reading that Cam post - I could really understand it. Maybe I should have studied pharmacology instead of music in college. <sigh>
>
> -puppy-
>
> > I think I have a good handle on what reuptake inhibition, neurotransmitter release, and monoamine oxidase inhibition is, but. . .
> >
> > what is an "antagonist" (as in "dopamine antagonist") and is it easy to explain in everyday language?
> >
> > -puppy-
poster:fachad
thread:110787
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020617/msgs/110887.html