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Re: why is buspar not an 'antipsychotic'?

Posted by Elizabeth on June 7, 2002, at 1:48:48

In reply to why is buspar not an 'antipsychotic'?, posted by katekite on May 28, 2002, at 22:01:41

Buspar was initially tested as an antipsychotic because of molecular similarities to haloperidol. Schizophrenic patients took doses as high as 2400 mg (not a typo). It was found ineffective.

Also, D2 blockade by Buspar is really quite minimal when compared with that of effective antipsychotics.

BTW, it's not really known whether the NE autoreceptor antagonist metabolite 1-(2-pyrimidinyl)piperazine (1-PP) really contributes at all to the observed effects of Buspar. I believe that Buspar does antagonize some of the behavioral effects of clonidine in mice, though, so maybe it does contribute.




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