Posted by crepuscular on May 21, 2002, at 17:12:55
In reply to Why is it considered Manic For Us?, posted by Bubba on May 19, 2002, at 15:14:40
Hmm. i'm not sure disinhibition behaviors should be assumed to be manic by anybody - a good p-doc should recognize the difference.
mania has so many flavors across different people, and indeed for the same person. most "normal" people generally do not become clinically manic (or hypomanic) on these drugs. i can say from personal experience that neurontin did not cause euphoria for me and was far more debilitating than lithium in terms of mental acuity. yuck!
so i don't know. labels can be bad, but getting the bipolar label is a significant step up from GAD or garder variety depression. it may be both over-diagnosed in person already inside the mental health system, and under-diagnosed outside the system.
for my epistemological dollar, similar symptom clusters may have different etiological origins and respond to very different medications - for no good reason other than people are such unique critters. perhaps sub-threshold schizophrenia sometimes shows up as bipolar or depressive symptomology, and for those people, the atypicals are actually getting to the root of something that "shouldn't" work.
same goes for other symptom clusters...
;)
poster:crepuscular
thread:106980
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020517/msgs/107187.html