Psycho-Babble Medication | about biological treatments | Framed
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ISO: Ack, I'm having trouble following that IsoM

Posted by Janelle on April 5, 2002, at 17:48:48

In reply to Re: How can 1/2 life be SAME for DIFF concentrations? Janelle, posted by IsoM on April 5, 2002, at 15:33:38

Okay, I get that if 500 mg of drug X has the proper effect then at 5-7 half-lives, what's left of it would have little effect on the body & not even be noticed. So, after 5 half-lives, 15.625 would basically have no effect. Heck, after 2-3 half-lives I would think there would not be enough to have a decent effect if 500 mg is needed?

Now, if only 5 mg of drug Y is needed for effectiveness, then with just one half-life, concentration would be at 2.5 mg, which I would think is too little to have an effect?

So, in a way, a med that requires a higher concentration (e.g., the one that requires 500 mg)needs more half-lives (than the one requiring only 5 mg) before it becomes ineffective, with 5-7 half-lives being the max? Is this accurate?ACKKKKKKKK!

I don't even get your comparison of the difference in how much salt as compared to sugar is needed in a cake to be good tasting! All I can think of is that you need a lot more sugar than salt for a cake to taste good, so you need a higher concentration of sugar than of salt.




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