Posted by IsoM on December 20, 2001, at 11:45:33
Cam, I've heard you mention a few times that generally if a med has side effects on an individual, it's more likely to work than one which causes little or no side effects. I'm not arguing the point at all, I just find it curious.
Perhaps I'm just different as whenever I've had troublesome side effects, even when I could/would persist with the med, it just didn't work. It's always been, for me at least, the less problems with it, the better it worked. The list of various meds I've tried include 4 tricyclics, 5 benzos, 5 SSRIs, 2 stims, & Mannerix & Buspar (wherever they fit in). Weird maybe?
No answer required of you, just mentioning this for your interest.
poster:IsoM
thread:87520
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20011213/msgs/87520.html