Posted by MB on July 9, 2001, at 21:45:44
In reply to Re: Can Zyprexa stimulate Hypomania? » MB, posted by Zo on July 9, 2001, at 21:37:12
>
> > Do you think (hypo)mania on ADs is indicative of >bipolar disorder or not? I've heard some say that a >(hypo)manic episode is necessary off of medication to >warrant the diagnosis.
>
> Um, that's my question. . .Let me know if you come across any references.
>
> ZoWell, in the DMS-IV it says that the hypomanic episode can't be drug induced if it is to count toward the diagnosis. I don't know if that has changed or not. Have you seen this site? http://www.psycheducation.org/ A friend of mine was seen by the doctor that wrote it. He seemed to think that "doing worse" on antidepressants was indicative of bipolar two, and that the DMS-IV had criteria that was too restrictive in warranting the diagnosis. However, he specialises in bipolar disorders and admitted to my friend that he could "find bipolar disorder under a rock" if he were to look there. So, he's not the most objective. Sometimes I wonder about these diagnoses. Do individual disorders fit so neatly into these boxes? That's what I wonder.
poster:MB
thread:69417
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20010708/msgs/69541.html